"Christ is the end of the law". We hear that phrase very often. It is common for people to quote that ignoring the rest of the verse and thus remove the context intended. With out the end of the verse and some proper word meanings people can be misled as to it's true meaning.
For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth. Romans 10:4
The word end is from the Greek word telos. Telos does not indicate time. It does include the meaning of performance, consummation or satisfaction. There can also be a connection to tax or debt which also goes along with the true meaning of Colossians 2:14.
Luke 24:44 And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me.
The second word "for" lets us know that Paul is going to explain what he meant. For righteousness to all who believe is very important.
Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly... 1 Timothy 1:9
Now if the law is no longer in existence then why did Paul talk about the Law being for the lawless? Paul did not use the past tense in this verse concerning the law.
But we know that the law is good if a man use it lawfully. 1 Timothy 1:8
How can the law be good if it does not exist? Well the problem is that most who promote the law is ended theory do not understand what God's law is or what is meant by the word law. The law is not just a set of rules and when you see the word law in scripture you need to keep in mind that there is something else being alluded to than just a set of rules.
The law consist of commands. Thou shall not kill. That is one commandment, but what does it mean? Are we in violation when we swat a fly? Well the law also consist of statutes to explain every law. Most of those are found in the old testament. You will not find the complete explanation for "Thou shall not kill" in the new testament. I hope one does not plan to rely on the dictionary or the laws of governments. Those change and can be rather anti-Christian. Each law must also have a judgment or punishment.
Now to the basis of the point. We must look at Romans 10:4 with the rest of scripture in mind. Romans 10:4 has it's emphasis, not on the whole law, but rather the judgments.
For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God. Romans 3:23
Since all of us sin we all deserve the judgment of death. Because of Christ we have the end of the judgment of death to everyone that believeth. If it was simply a matter of Paul being happy that there was no longer any law then he would never have made the statements found in 1 Timothy as well as many, many more. Start reading through the new testament watching for, can we call it, "pro-law" verses and I think one will be amazed at the number of them. There are actually more than those that seem to tell us there is no law.
(I always have to add that Christ is our high priest and sacrifice thus satisfying, not ending, but satisfying the requirement of the priesthood and sacrifices.)
Now here should be one very good reason that the law still exist. It is a part of the new covenant. What are the specific terms of the covenant? They are repeated from Jeremiah twice in Hebrews. Here is one.
This is the covenant that I will make with them after those days, saith the Lord, I will put my laws into their hearts, and in their minds will I write them. Hebrews 10:16
What Law was God referring to when he originally said this in Jeremiah? There is only one God as Christ is God and our savior. So you see that God's law is now written on the heart and not just on stone. If there is no law, there is no new covenant. Perhaps the verse would have made more sense if it had been translated more literally showing that this was an answer to prophecy.
Indeed Christ is the fulfillment of the law for justice to each one that is trusting. Romans 10:4, CNT.
Tim